I don't know what most of those acronyms stand for. I also know little or nothing about formal or organized teaching of second language.

You say that England is a leader in this business, and yet brits in general are as famously mono-lingual as americans and canadians. The french are famously monolingual, spanish-speakers as well, and indeed, when you get right down to it, effective mono-ligualism is the norm for all populations with the exception of those regions I noted earlier (and even there more rural populations tend to be mono-lingual). 

I very much doubt that the foreign-language teaching business has anything whatever to do with that phenomenon of high rates of english fluency in parts of Germany, Holland and Scandinavia (which, unlike India and other parts of the former British empire have zero history of english-speaking influence). It might be instructive for you pros to figure out what the actual reason is.